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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

08.06.2025 06:05

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why am I peeing so much without drinking a lot of water? I checked my blood sugar and it is normal. Could it be something else?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Why do flat earthers think using globetrotter, globetard, and other insults will make the educated arguer fall for the silly flat-earth belief?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.